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Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2024 Networking Professional Sample Questions (Q22-Q27):

NEW QUESTION # 22
Which of the following statements is TRUE about CloudShell in OCI?

A. It offers persistent storage for user-specific files and configurations.
B. It requires manual installation and configuration of tools and utilities.
C. It provides a pre-configured web-based IDE for developing and deploying applications.
D. It charges for usage based on resource consumption and tenancy limits.

Answer: A

Explanation:
CloudShell provides 5 GB of persistent storage in your home directory within each separate CloudShell instance you launch in different regions. This allows you to save projects, configurations, and personal files that persist across sessions within the same region, promoting continuity and avoiding the need to start from scratch each time.
Explanation of incorrect statements:
A). It provides a pre-configured web-based IDE for developing and deploying applications. While CloudShell comes with various tools and utilities out of the box, such as the OCI CLI and Ansible, it,s not primarily intended as a web-based IDE. You can integrate your own IDE or text editor into CloudShell using web-based services or local installations on your system.C. It requires manual installation and configuration of tools and utilities. CloudShell is pre-configured with essential tools and utilities, including the OCI CLI, Python, Git, and more. You can typically use these tools immediately without manual setup. However, if you need additional tools or specific versions, you might need to install them using package managers available within CloudShell.D. It charges for usage based on resource consumption and tenancy limits. CloudShell itself is free to use, but resources like compute instances or storage volumes that you create through CloudShell will incur charges based on your tenancy,s limits and pricing model. Be mindful of these costs when using CloudShell for resource-intensive tasks.

NEW QUESTION # 23
Which of the following methods DOES NOT provide secure inter-tenancy communication?

A. Internet Gateway with firewall rules and VPN connection to each tenancy
B. FastConnect with private peering and security zones
C. VCN Peering with IAM policies restricting access to specific resources
D. Service Gateway endpoint with resource-level IAM policies

Answer: A

Explanation:
A). VCN Peering with IAM policies: This offers secure communication within a controlled environment through dedicated peering connections and granular access control with IAM policies.B. FastConnect with private peering and security zones: This method establishes secure, dedicated connections with additional isolation through security zones within FastConnect.C. Service Gateway endpoint with resource-level IAM policies: This utilizes a managed service for secure communication with fine-grained control over access using resource-level IAM policies.D. Internet Gateway with firewall rules and VPN connection: While this method can establish connections, it relies on the public internet, posing inherent security risks. Publicly exposed resources and the potential for vulnerabilities in individual VPN connections make this option less secure compared to controlled and dedicated solutions like VCN peering, FastConnect, and Service Gateway.

NEW QUESTION # 24
Which VCN gateway type enables secure, private communication between your VCN and on-premises network using IPSec tunnels?

A. Local Peering Gateway
B. Dynamic Routing Gateway
C. Internet Gateway
D. NAT Gateway

Answer: B

Explanation:
Local Peering Gateway: This gateway facilitates communication between VCNs within the same region, not with external networks like your on-premises network.
Internet Gateway: This gateway allows public internet access and wouldn,t provide the secure, private connection needed for IPSec tunnels.
NAT Gateway: This gateway only allows outbound traffic from your VCN to the internet and wouldn,t enable bi-directional communication with your on-premises network.
A DRG, however, serves as a central hub for routing traffic between your VCN and other networks, including on-premises networks. By establishing a Site-to-Site VPN connection with your on-premises VPN device and attaching it to the DRG, you can create a secure, encrypted tunnel using IPSec protocols for private communication.

NEW QUESTION # 25
IF application requires dynamic public IP addresses for instances launched on demand. Which option provides the most flexibility?

A. Manually assign public IPs from a pool to each instance.
B. Create secondary public IP CIDR blocks in the subnet.
C. Configure public IP auto-assignment on the subnet.
D. Use NAT Gateway with public IP pool association.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A). Manually assign public IPs from a pool to each instance: This is cumbersome and time-consuming for frequent launches, especially as your demand scales. Additionally, manual tracking and allocation increase the risk of errors and IP exhaustion.C. Use NAT Gateway with public IP pool association: While NAT Gateways offer cost savings on outbound traffic, they introduce a single point of failure and limit inbound connections to specific ports. They,re not ideal for applications requiring flexibility and direct inbound access.D. Create secondary public IP CIDR blocks in the subnet: This increases the available public IP addresses, but it,s less flexible than auto-assignment. Managing multiple CIDR blocks and ensuring their efficient use can be complex, especially as your needs evolve.Configuring public IP auto-assignment streamlines the process:
When you launch an instance in the subnet with auto-assignment enabled, it automatically receives a public IP from the available pool.
This is highly scalable and simplifies instance management, automatically fulfilling your dynamic requirements.
Most cloud providers offer auto-assignment functionality, usually within the subnet configuration settings.
Remember to balance flexibility with security:
Implement firewalls and security groups to restrict access to instances based on your application,s needs.
Consider auditing and logging public IP assignments to track usage and potential security concerns.

NEW QUESTION # 26
DEVELOPER configured BGP peering between his DRG and an on-premises router. How can he control the routes advertised to OCI VCNs connected to the DRG?

A. Update route tables in each VCN.
B. Configure IPSec tunnels with specific route filters.
C. Adjust BGP community attributes on advertised routes.
D. Modify the DRG security list rules.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Here,s why:
BGP Community Attributes: This is a standard BGP feature specifically designed for controlling which routes get advertised to other BGP peers. By attaching specific community attributes to advertised routes from the on-premises router, the developer can precisely control which VCNs within the DRG receive those routes.
Granular Control: Unlike other options, community attributes offer fine-grained control over route advertisement. They can be used to selectively advertise routes to specific VCNs, groups of VCNs based on specific criteria, or even control how OCI prioritizes incoming routes based on their associated communities.
Efficiency: Modifying community attributes directly at the source (on-premises router) is efficient and avoids unnecessary configuration changes within the DRG or individual VCNs.
Comparison with other options:
DRG Security List Rules (A): Security lists control traffic flow within a VCN, not routes advertised to the VCN via BGP.
VCN Route Tables (C): Route tables within VCNs control how traffic within the VCN is routed, not which routes are advertised to the VCN.
IPSec Tunnels with Route Filters (D): While IPSec tunnels support route filters, this approach is less efficient and less standardized compared to BGP community attributes, requiring configuration on both sides of the tunnel.

NEW QUESTION # 27
......

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